Which artery would the nurse use to palpate the pulse of an infant younger than 1 year of age?
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© 2015 British Columbia Institute of Technology (BCIT). Clinical Procedures for Safer Patient Care by Glynda Rees Doyle and Jodie Anita McCutcheon, British Columbia Institute of Technology. Licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution 4.0 International License, except where otherwise noted. Download this book for free at http://open.bccampus.ca
Show Alone or in combination: vasodilator therapy (angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors), angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), select beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, diuretic therapy, cardiac glycosides (digitalis), and others
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Sources: Marilyn Sawyer Sommers, RN, PhD, FAAN , Susan A. Johnson, RN, PhD, Theresa A. Beery, PhD, RN , DISEASES AND DISORDERS A Nursing Therapeutics Manual, 2007 3rd ed ExamMSN Exam for Myocardial Infarction, Heart Failure & other Heart Diseases (PM)*Please wait while the activity loads. If loading fails, click here to try again Choose the letter of the correct answer. Good luck! Start Congratulations - you have completed MSN Exam for Myocardial Infarction, Heart Failure & other Heart Diseases (PM)*. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%% Your answers are highlighted below. Question 1 Which of the following symptoms is the most likely origin of pain the client described as knifelike chest pain that increases in intensity with inspiration? A Cardiac B Gastrointestinal C Musculoskeletal D Pulmonary Question 1 Explanation: Pulmonary pain is generally described by these symptoms. Options A and B: Cardiac and GI pains don’t change with respiration. Option C: Musculoskeletal pain only increases with movement. Question 2 A nurse is conducting a health history with a client with a primary diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following disorders reported by the client is unlikely to play a role in exacerbating the heart failure? A Recent URI B Nutritional anemia C Peptic ulcer disease D A-Fib Question 2 Explanation: Heart failure is precipitated or exacerbated by physical or emotional stress, dysrhythmias, infections, anemia, thyroid disorders, pregnancy, Paget’s disease, nutritional deficiencies (thiamine, alcoholism), pulmonary disease, and hypervolemia. Question 3 A nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with heart failure who is being sent directly to the hospital from the physician’s office. The nurse would plan on having which of the following medications readily available for use? A Diltiazem (Cardizem) B Digoxin (Lanoxin) C Propranolol (Inderal) D Metoprolol (Lopressor) Question 3 Explanation: Digoxin exerts a positive inotropic effect on the heart while slowing the overall rate through a variety of mechanisms. Digoxin is the medication of choice to treat heart failure. Options A, C, and D: Diltiazem (calcium channel blocker) and propranolol and metoprolol (beta blockers) have a negative inotropic effect and would worsen the failing heart. Question 4 A 42-year-old client admitted with an acute myocardial infarction asks to see his chart. What should the nurse do first? A Allow the client to view his chart B Contact the supervisor and physician for approval C Ask the client if he has concerns about his care D Tell the client that he isn't permitted to view his chart. Question 5 A client’s electrocardiogram strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of 80 complexes per minute. The PR interval is 0.14 second, and the QRS complex measures 0.08 second. The nurse interprets this rhythm is: A Normal sinus rhythm B Sinus bradycardia C Sinus tachycardia D Sinus dysrhythmia Question 6 Which of the following positions would best aid breathing for a client with acute pulmonary edema? A Lying flat in bed B Left side-lying C In high Fowler’s position D In semi-Fowler’s position Question 6 Explanation: A high Fowler’s position promotes ventilation and facilitates breathing by reducing venous return. Options A and B: Lying flat and side-lying positions worsen the breathing and increase the workload of the heart. Option D: Semi-Fowler’s position won’t reduce the workload of the heart as well as the Fowler’s position will. Question 7 With which of the following disorders is jugular vein distention most prominent? A Abdominal aortic aneurysm B Heart failure C MI D Pneumothorax Question 7 Explanation: Elevated venous pressure, exhibited as jugular vein distention, indicates a failure of the heart to pump. Options A and D: JVD isn’t a symptom of abdominal aortic aneurysm or pneumothorax. Option C: An MI, if severe enough, can progress to heart failure, however, in and of itself, an MI doesn’t cause JVD. Question 8 A nurse caring for a client in one room is told by another nurse that a second client has developed severe pulmonary edema. On entering the 2nd client’s room, the nurse would expect the client to be: A Slightly anxious B Mildly anxious C Moderately anxious D Extremely anxious Question 8 Explanation: Pulmonary edema causes the client to be extremely agitated and anxious. The client may complain of a sense of drowning, suffocation, or smothering. Question 9 Which of the following types of angina is most closely related with an impending MI? A Angina decubitus B Chronic stable angina C Noctural angina D Unstable angina Question 9 Explanation: Unstable angina progressively increases in frequency, intensity, and duration and is related to an increased risk of MI within 3 to 18 months. Question 10 Nursing measures for the client who has had an MI include helping the client to avoid activity that results in Valsalva’s maneuver. Valsalva’s maneuver may cause cardiac dysrhythmias, increased venous pressure, increased intrathoracic pressure and thrombi dislodgement. Which of the following actions would help prevent Valsalva’s maneuver? Have the client: A Assume a side-lying position B Clench her teeth while moving in bed C Drink fluids through a straw D Avoid holding her breath during activity Question 11 Which of the following tests is used most often to diagnose angina? A Chest x-ray B Echocardiogram C Cardiac catherization D 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) Question 11 Explanation: The 12-lead ECG will indicate ischemia, showing T-wave inversion. In addition, with variant angina, the ECG shows ST-segment elevation. Option A: A chest x-ray will show heart enlargement or signs of heart failure, but isn’t used to diagnose angina. Question 12 On the evening shift, the triage nurse evaluates several clients who were brought to the emergency department. Which in the following clients should receive highest priority? A an elderly woman complaining of a loss of appetite and fatigue for the past week B A football player limping and complaining of pain and swelling in the right ankle C A 50-year-old man, diaphoretic and complaining of severe chest pain radiating to his jaw D A mother with a 5-year-old boy who says her son has been complaining of nausea and vomited once since noon Question 12 Explanation: These are likely signs of an acute myocardial infarction (MI). An acute MI is a cardiovascular emergency requiring immediate attention. Acute MI is potentially fatal if not treated immediately. Question 13 Which of the following classes of drugs is most widely used in the treatment of cardiomyopathy? A Antihypertensives B Beta-adrenergic blockers C Calcium channel blockers D Nitrates Question 13 Explanation: By decreasing the heart rate and contractility, beta-blockers improve myocardial filling and cardiac output, which are primary goals in the treatment of cardiomyopathy. Option A: Antihypertensives aren’t usually indicated because they would decrease cardiac output in clients who are already hypotensive. Option C: Calcium channel blockers are sometimes used for the same reasons as beta-blockers; however, they aren’t as effective as beta-blockers and cause increased hypotension. Option D: Nitrates aren’t used because of their dilating effects, which would further compromise the myocardium. Question 14 Nurse Betty is assigned to the following clients. The client that the nurse would see first after endorsement? A A 34 year-old post operative appendectomy client of five hours who is complaining of pain. B A 44 year-old myocardial infarction (MI) client who is complaining of nausea. C A 26 year-old client admitted for dehydration whose intravenous (IV) has infiltrated. D A 63 year-old post operative’s abdominal hysterectomy client of three days whose incisional dressing is saturated with serosanguinous fluid. Question 14 Explanation: Nausea is a symptom of impending myocardial infarction (MI) and should be assessed immediately so that treatment can be instituted and further damage to the heart is avoided. Question 15 After an anterior wall myocardial infarction, which of the following problems is indicated by auscultation of crackles in the lungs? A Left-sided heart failure B Pulmonic valve malfunction C Right-sided heart failure D Tricupsid valve malfunction Question 15 Explanation: The left ventricle is responsible for most of the cardiac output. An anterior wall MI may result in a decrease in left ventricular function. When the left ventricle doesn’t function properly, resulting in left-sided heart failure, fluid accumulates in the interstitial and alveolar spaces in the lungs and causes crackles. Options B, C, and D: Pulmonic and tricuspid valve malfunction cause right-sided heart failure. Question 16 Which of the following blood tests is most indicative of cardiac damage? A Lactate dehydrogenase B Complete blood count (CBC) C Troponin I D Creatine kinase (CK) Question 16 Explanation: Troponin I levels rise rapidly and are detectable within 1 hour of myocardial injury. Troponin I levels aren’t detectable in people without cardiac injury. Option A: Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) is present in almost all body tissues and not specific to heart muscle. LDH isoenzymes are useful in diaagnosing a cardiac injury. Option B: CBC is obtained to review blood counts, and a complete chemistry is obtained to review electrolytes. Option D: Because CK levels may rise with a skeletal muscle injury, CK isoenzymes are required to detect cardiac injury. Question 17 Which of the following conditions is most closely associated with weight gain, nausea, and a decrease in urine output? A Angina pectoris B Cardiomyopathy C Left-sided heart failure D Right-sided heart failure Question 17 Explanation: Weight gain, nausea, and a decrease in urine output are secondary effects of right-sided heart failure. Option A: Angina pectoris doesn’t cause weight gain, nausea, or a decrease in urine output. Option B: Cardiomyopathy is usually identified as a symptom of left-sided heart failure. Option C: Left-sided heart failure causes primarily pulmonary symptoms rather than systemic ones. Question 18 Which of the following actions is the appropriate initial response to a client coughing up pink, frothy sputum? A Call for help B Call the physician C Start an I.V. line D Suction the client Question 18 Explanation: Production of pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of acute pulmonary edema. Because the client is at high risk for decompensation, the nurse should call for help but not leave the room. The other three interventions would immediately follow. Question 19 A client with angina complains that the angina pain is prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, most often in the morning, On further assessment a nurse notes that the pain occurs in the absence of precipitating factors. This type of anginal pain is best described as: A Stable angina B Unstable angina C Variant angina D Nonanginal pain Question 19 Explanation: Variant angina, or Prinzmetal’s angina, is prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, most often in the morning. Option A: Stable angina is induced by exercise and is relieved by rest or nitroglycerin tablets. Option B: Unstable angina occurs at lower and lower levels of activity and rest, is less predictable and is often a precursor of myocardial infarction. Question 20 If medical treatments fail, which of the following invasive procedures is necessary for treating cariomyopathy? A Cardiac catherization B Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) C Heart transplantation D Intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) Question 20 Explanation: The only definitive treatment for cardiomyopathy that can’t be controlled medically is a heart transplant because the damage to the heart muscle is irreversible. Question 21 Which of the following is a compensatory response to decreased cardiac output? A Decreased BP B Alteration in LOC C Decreased BP and diuresis D Increased BP and fluid retention Question 21 Explanation: The body compensates for a decrease in cardiac output with a rise in BP, due to the stimulation of the sympathetic NS and an increase in blood volume as the kidneys retain sodium and water. Option A: Blood pressure doesn’t initially drop in response to the compensatory mechanism of the body. Option B: Alteration in LOC will occur only if the decreased cardiac output persists. Question 22 Which of the following terms describes the force against which the ventricle must expel blood? A Afterload B Cardiac output C Overload D Preload Question 22 Explanation: Afterload refers to the resistance on maintained by the aortic and pulmonic valves, the condition and tone of the aorta, and the resistance offered by the systemic and pulmonary arterioles. Option B: Cardiac output is the amount of blood expelled by the heart per minute. Option C: Overload refers to an abundance of circulating volume. Option D: Preload is the volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole. Question 23 The client with an acute myocardial infarction is hospitalized for almost one week. The client experiences nausea and loss of appetite. The nurse caring for the client recognizes that these symptoms may indicate the: A Adverse effects of spironolactone (Aldactone) B Adverse effects of digoxin (Lanoxin) C Therapeutic effects of propranolol (Indiral) D Therapeutic effects of furosemide (Lasix) Question 23 Explanation: Toxic levels of Lanoxin stimulate the medullary chemoreceptor trigger zone, resulting in nausea and subsequent anorexia. Question 24 In which of the following disorders would the nurse expect to assess sacral edema in a bedridden client? A Diabetes B Pulmonary emboli C Renal failure D Right-sided heart failure Question 24 Explanation: The most accurate area on the body to assess dependent edema in a bed-ridden client is the sacral area. Sacral, or dependent, edema is secondary to right-sided heart failure. Question 25 Which of the following interventions should be the first priority when treating a client experiencing chest pain while walking? A Sit the client down B Get the client back to bed C Obtain an ECG D Administer sublingual nitroglycerin Question 25 Explanation: The initial priority is to decrease the oxygen consumption; this would be achieved by sitting the client down. Option B and D: After the ECG, sublingual nitro would be administered. When the client’s condition is stabilized, he can be returned to bed. Option C: An ECG can be obtained after the client is sitting down. Question 26 Which of the following is an expected outcome for a client on the second day of hospitalization after an MI? A Has severe chest pain B Can identify risks factors for MI C Agrees to participate in a cardiac rehabilitation walking program D Can perform personal self-care activities without pain Question 26 Explanation: By day 2 of hospitalization after an MI, clients are expected to be able to perform personal care without chest pain. Day 2 hospitalization may be too soon for clients to be able to identify risk factors for MI or begin a walking program; however, the client may be sitting up in a chair as part of the cardiac rehabilitation program. Severe chest pain should not be present. Question 27 An older, sedentary adult may not respond to emotional or physical stress as well as a younger individual because of: A Left ventricular atrophy B Irregular heartbeats C peripheral vascular occlusion D Pacemaker placement Question 27 Explanation: In older adults who are less active and do not exercise the heart muscle, atrophy can result. Disuse or deconditioning can lead to abnormal changes in the myocardium of the older adult. As a result, under sudden emotional or physical stress, the left ventricle is less able to respond to the increased demands on the myocardial muscle. Question 28 What is the most common complication of an MI? A Cardiogenic shock B Heart failure C arrhythmias D Pericarditis Question 28 Explanation: Arrhythmias, caused by oxygen deprivation to the myocardium, are the most common complication of an MI. Option A: Cardiogenic shock, another complication of an MI, is defined as the end stage of left ventricular dysfunction. This condition occurs in approximately 15% of clients with MI. Option B: Because the pumping function of the heart is compromised by an MI, heart failure is the second most common complication. Option D: Pericarditis most commonly results from a bacterial or viral infection but may occur after the MI. Question 29 A client admitted with angina compains of severe chest pain and suddenly becomes unresponsive. After establishing unresponsiveness, which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A Activate the resuscitation team B Open the client’s airway C Check for breathing D Check for signs of circulation Question 29 Explanation: Immediately after establishing unresponsiveness, the nurse should activate the resuscitation team. The next step is to open the airway using the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver and check for breathing (looking, listening, and feeling for no more than 10-seconds). If the client isn’t breathing, give two slow breaths using a bag mask or pocket mask. Next, check for signs of circulation by palpating the carotid pulse. Question 30 Which of the following blood gas abnormalities is initially most suggestive of pulmonary edema? A Anoxia B Hypercapnia C Hyperoxygenation D Hypocapnia Question 30 Explanation: In an attempt to compensate for increased work of breathing due to hyperventilation, carbon dioxide decreases, causing hypocapnea. If the condition persists, CO2 retention occurs and hypercapnia results. Question 31 Which of the following is the most common symptom of myocardial infarction (MI)? A Chest pain B Dyspnea C Edema D Palpitations Question 31 Explanation: The most common symptom of an MI is chest pain, resulting from deprivation of oxygen to the heart. Option B: Dyspnea is the second most common symptom, related to an increase in the metabolic needs of the body during an MI. Option C: Edema is a later sign of heart failure, often seen after an MI. Option D: Palpitations may result from reduced cardiac output, producing arrhythmias. Question 32 Which of the following symptoms might a client with right-sided heart failure exhibit? A Adequate urine output B Polyuria C Oliguria D Polydipsia Question 32 Explanation: Inadequate deactivation of aldosterone by the liver after right-sided heart failure leads to fluid retention, which causes oliguria. Question 33 A client who had cardiac surgery 24 hours ago has a urine output averaging 19 ml/hr for 2 hours. The client received a single bolus of 500 ml of IV fluid. Urine output for the subsequent hour was 25 ml. Daily laboratory results indicate the blood urea nitrogen is 45 mg/dL and the serum creatinine is 2.2 mg/dL. A nurse interprets the client is at risk for: A Hypovolemia B UTI C Glomerulonephritis D Acute renal failure Question 33 Explanation: The client who undergoes cardiac surgery is at risk for renal injury from poor perfusion, hemolysis, low cardiac output, or vasopressor medication therapy. Renal insult is signaled by decreased urine output, and increased BUN and creatinine levels. The client may need medications such as dopamine (Intropin) to increase renal perfusion and possibly could need peritoneal dialysis or hemodialysis. Question 34 A client with pulmonary edema has been on diuretic therapy. The client has an order for additional furosemide (Lasix) in the amount of 40 mg IV push. Knowing that the client also will be started on Digoxin (Lanoxin), a nurse checks the client’s most recent: A Digoxin level B Sodium level C Potassium level D Creatinine level Question 34 Explanation: The serum potassium level is measured in the client receiving digoxin and furosemide. Heightened digitalis effect leading to digoxin toxicity can occur in the client with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia also predisposes the client to ventricular dysrhythmias. Question 35 Which of the following foods should the nurse teach a client with heart failure to avoid or limit when following a 2-gram sodium diet? A Apples B Tomato juice C Whole wheat bread D Beef tenderloin Question 35 Explanation: Canned foods and juices, such as tomato juice, are typically high in sodium and should be avoided in a sodium-restricted diet. Question 36 A 23 year old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms? A Myocardial infarction due to a history of atherosclerosis. B Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT). C Anxiety attack due to worries about her baby's health. D Congestive heart failure due to fluid overload. Question 36 Explanation: In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, he most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs. These clots can then break loose and travel to the lungs. Myocardial infarction and atherosclerosis are unlikely in a 27-year-old woman, as is congestive heart failure due to fluid overload. There is no reason to suspect an anxiety disorder in this patient. Though anxiety is a possible cause of her symptoms, the seriousness of pulmonary embolism demands that it be considered first. Question 37 A home care nurse is making a routine visit to a client receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) in the treatment of heart failure. The nurse would particularly assess the client for: A Thrombocytopenia and weight gain B Anorexia, nausea, and visual disturbances C Diarrhea and hypotension D Fatigue and muscle twitching Question 37 Explanation: The first signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity in adults include abdominal pain, N/V, visual disturbances (blurred, yellow, or green vision, halos around lights), bradycardia, and other dysrhythmias. Question 38 Myocardial oxygen consumption increases as which of the following parameters increase? A Preload, afterload, and cerebral blood flow B Preload, afterload, and renal blood flow C Preload, afterload, contractility, and heart rate. D Preload, afterload, cerebral blood flow, and heart rate. Question 38 Explanation: Myocardial oxygen consumption increases as preload, afterload, renal contractility, and heart rate increase. Cerebral blood flow doesn’t directly affect myocardial oxygen consumption. Question 39 Jose, who had a myocardial infarction 2 days earlier, has been complaining to the nurse about issues related to his hospital stay. The best initial nursing response would be to: A Allow him to release his feelings and then leave him alone to allow him to regain his composure B Refocus the conversation on his fears, frustrations and anger about his condition C Explain how his being upset dangerously disturbs his need for rest D Attempt to explain the purpose of different hospital routines Question 39 Explanation: This provides the opportunity for the client to verbalize feelings underlying behavior and helpful in relieving anxiety. Anxiety can be a stressor which can activate the sympathoadrenal response causing the release of catecholamines that can increase cardiac contractility and workload that can further increase myocardial oxygen demand. Question 40 Nurse Patricia finds a female client who is post-myocardial infarction (MI) slumped on the side rails of the bed and unresponsive to shaking or shouting. Which is the nurse next action? A Call for help and note the time. B Clear the airway C Give two sharp thumps to the precordium, and check the pulse. D Administer two quick blows. Question 40 Explanation: Having established, by stimulating the client, that the client is unconscious rather than sleep, the nurse should immediately call for help. This may be done by dialing the operator from the client’s phone and giving the hospital code for cardiac arrest and the client’s room number to the operator, of if the phone is not available, by pulling the emergency call button. Noting the time is important baseline information for cardiac arrest procedure. Question 41 After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate to suggest? A 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, ½ cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk B 3 oz. canned salmon, fresh broccoli, 1 biscuit, tea, and 1 apple C A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice D 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange Question 41 Explanation: Canned fish and vegetables and cured meats are high in sodium. This meal does not contain any canned fish and/or vegetables or cured meats Question 42 Which of the following is the most common symptom of myocardial infarction? A Chest pain B Dyspnea C Edema D Palpitations Question 42 Explanation: The most common symptom of an MI is chest pain, resulting from deprivation of oxygen to the heart. Dyspnea is the second most common symptom, related to an increase in the metabolic needs of the body during an MI. Edema is a later sign of heart failure, often seen after an MI. Palpitations may result from reduced cardiac output, producing arrhythmias. Question 43 During the second day of hospitalization of the client after a Myocardial Infarction. Which of the following is an expected outcome? A Able to perform self-care activities without pain B Severe chest pain C Can recognize the risk factors of Myocardial Infarction D Can participate in cardiac rehabilitation walking program Question 43 Explanation: By the 2nd day of hospitalization after suffering a Myocardial Infarction, Clients are able to perform care without chest pain Question 44 In order to be effective, Percutaneous Transluminal Coronary Angioplasty (PTCA) must be performed within what time frame, beginning with arrival at the emergency department after diagnosis of myocardial infarction? A 60 minutes B 30 minutes C 9 days D 6-12 months Question 44 Explanation: The sixty minute interval is known as “door to balloon time” for performance of PTCA on a diagnosed MI patient. Question 45 A patient arrives in the emergency department with symptoms of myocardial infarction, progressing to cardiogenic shock. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit with cardiogenic shock? A Hypertension. B Bradycardia. C Bounding pulse. D Confusion. Question 45 Explanation: Cardiogenic shock severely impairs the pumping function of the heart muscle, causing diminished blood flow to the organs of the body. This results in diminished brain function and confusion, as well as hypotension, tachycardia, and weak pulse. Cardiogenic shock is a serious complication of myocardial infarction with a high mortality rate. Question 46 Septal involvement occurs in which type of cardiomyopathy? A Congestive B Dilated C Hypertrophic D Restrictive Question 46 Explanation: In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, hypertrophy of the ventricular septum—not the ventricle chambers—is apparent. This abnormality isn’t seen in other types of cardiomyopathy. Question 47 Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is considered for treatment of a patient who arrives in the emergency department following onset of symptoms of myocardial infarction. Which of the following is a contraindication for treatment with t-PA? A Worsening chest pain that began earlier in the evening. B History of cerebral hemorrhage. C History of prior myocardial infarction. D Hypertension. Question 47 Explanation: A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to tPA because it may increase the risk of bleeding. TPA acts by dissolving the clot blocking the coronary artery and works best when administered within 6 hours of onset of symptoms. Prior MI is not a contraindication to tPA. Patients receiving tPA should be observed for changes in blood pressure, as tPA may cause hypotension. Question 48 Which of the following classes of medications protects the ischemic myocardium by blocking catecholamines and sympathetic nerve stimulation? A Beta-adrenergic blockers B Calcium channel blockers C Narcotics D Nitrates Question 48 Explanation: Beta-adrenergic blockers work by blocking beta receptors in the myocardium, reducing the response to catecholamines and sympathetic nerve stimulation. They protect the myocardium, helping to reduce the risk of another infarction by decreasing myocardial oxygen demand. Option B: Calcium channel blockers reduce the workload of the heart by decreasing the heart rate. Option C: Narcotics reduce myocardial oxygen demand, promote vasodilation, and decrease anxiety. Option D: Nitrates reduce myocardial oxygen consumption by decreasing left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (preload) and systemic vascular resistance (afterload). Question 49 Which of the following types of cardiomyopathy can be associated with childbirth? A Dilated B Hypertrophic C Myocarditis D Restrictive Question 49 Explanation: Although the cause isn’t entirely known, cardiac dilation and heart failure may develop during the last month of pregnancy or the first few months after birth. The condition may result from a preexisting cardiomyopathy not apparent prior to pregnancy. Option B: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an abnormal symmetry of the ventricles that has an unknown etiology but a strong familial tendency. Option C: Myocarditis isn’t specifically associated with childbirth. Option D: Restrictive cardiomyopathy indicates constrictive pericarditis; the underlying cause is usually myocardial. Question 50 A 55-year-old client is admitted with an acute inferior-wall myocardial infarction. During the admission interview, he says he stopped taking his metoprolol (Lopressor) 5 days ago because he was feeling better. Which of the following nursing diagnoses takes priority for this client? A Anxiety B Ineffective tissue perfusion; cardiopulmonary C Acute pain D Ineffective therapeutic regimen management Question 50 Explanation: MI results from prolonged myocardial ischemia caused by reduced blood flow through the coronary arteries. Therefore, the priority nursing diagnosis for this client is Ineffective tissue perfusion (cardiopulmonary). Options A, C, and D: Anxiety, acute pain, and ineffective therapeutic regimen management are appropriate but don’t take priority. Question 51 Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be appropriate for a client with heart failure? Select all that apply. A Ineffective tissue perfusion related to decreased peripheral blood flow secondary to decreased cardiac output. B Activity intolerance related to increased cardiac output. C Decreased cardiac output related to structural and functional changes. D Impaired gas exchange related to decreased sympathetic nervous system activity. Question 51 Explanation: HF is a result of structural and functional abnormalities of the heart tissue muscle. The heart muscle becomes weak and does not adequately pump the blood out of the chambers. As a result, blood pools in the left ventricle and backs up into the left atrium, and eventually into the lungs. Therefore, greater amounts of blood remain in the ventricle after contraction thereby decreasing cardiac output. In addition, this pooling leads to thrombus formation and ineffective tissue perfusion because of the decrease in blood flow to the other organs and tissues of the body. Typically, these clients have an ejection fraction of less than 50% and poorly tolerate activity. Option B: Activity intolerance is related to a decrease, not increase, in cardiac output. Option D: Gas exchange is impaired. However, the decrease in cardiac output triggers compensatory mechanisms, such as an increase in sympathetic nervous system activity. Question 52 The nurse coming on duty receives the report from the nurse going off duty. Which of the following clients should the on-duty nurse assess first? A The 58-year-old client who was admitted 2 days ago with heart failure, BP of 126/76, and a respiratory rate of 21 breaths a minute. B The 88-year-old client with end-stage right-sided heart failure, BP of 78/50, and a DNR order. C The 62-year-old client who was admitted one day ago with thrombophlebitis and receiving IV heparin. D A 76-year-old client who was admitted 1 hour ago with new-onset atrial fibrillation and is receiving IV diltiazem (Cardizem). Question 52 Explanation: The client with A-fib has the greatest potential to become unstable and is on IV medication that requires close monitoring. After assessing this client, the nurse should assess the client with thrombophlebitis who is receiving a heparin infusion, and then go to the 58-year-old client admitted 2-days ago with heart failure (her s/s are resolving and don’t require immediate attention). The lowest priority is the 89-year-old with end stage right-sided heart failure, who requires time consuming supportive measures. Question 53 A client has frequent bursts of ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. A nurse is most concerned with this dysrhythmia because: A It is uncomfortable for the client, giving a sense of impending doom. B It produces a high cardiac output that quickly leads to cerebral and myocardial ischemia. C It is almost impossible to convert to a normal sinus rhythm. D It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time. Question 53 Explanation: Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening dysrhythmia that results from an irritable ectopic focus that takes over as the pacemaker for the heart. Option A: Client’s frequently experienced a feeling of impending death. Ventricular tachycardia is treated with antiarrhythmic medications or magnesium sulfate, cardioversion (client awake), or defibrillation (loss of consciousness). Option B: The low cardiac output that results can lead quickly to cerebral and myocardial ischemia. Option D: Ventricular tachycardia can deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation at any time. Question 54 Alzheimer’s disease is the secondary diagnosis of a client admitted with myocardial infarction. Which nursing intervention should appear on this client’s plan of care? A Perform activities of daily living for the client to decease frustration. B Provide a stimulating environment. C Establish and maintain a routine. D Try to reason with the client as much as possible. Question 54 Explanation: Establishing and maintaining a routine is essential to decreasing extraneous stimuli. The client should participate in daily care as much as possible. Attempting to reason with such clients isn’t successful, because they can’t participate in abstract thinking. Question 55 Acute pulmonary edema caused by heart failure is usually a result of damage to which of the following areas of the heart? A Left atrium B Right atrium C Left ventricle D Right ventricle Question 55 Explanation: The left ventricle is responsible for the majority of force for the cardiac output. If the left ventricle is damaged, the output decreases and fluid accumulates in the interstitial and alveolar spaces, causing pulmonary edema. Option A: Damage to the left atrium would contribute to heart failure but wouldn’t affect cardiac output or, therefore, the onset of pulmonary edema. Options B and D: If the right atrium and right ventricle were damaged, right-sided heart failure would result. Question 56 Which of the following conditions is associated with a predictable level of pain that occurs as a result of physical or emotional stress? A Anxiety B Stable angina C Unstable angina D Variant angina Question 56 Explanation: The pain of stable angina is predictable in nature, builds gradually, and quickly reaches maximum intensity. Option C: Unstable angina doesn’t always need a trigger, is more intense, and lasts longer than stable angina. Option D: Variant angina usually occurs at rest—not as a result of exercise or stress. Question 57 To prevent a valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would A Assist the client to use the bedside commode B Administer stool softeners every day as ordered C Administer antidysrhythmics prn as ordered D Maintain the client on strict bed rest Question 57 Explanation: Administering stool softeners every day will prevent straining on defecation which causes the Valsalva maneuver. If constipation occurs then laxatives would be necessary to prevent straining. If straining on defecation produced the valsalva maneuver and rhythm disturbances resulted then antidysrhythmics would be appropriate. Question 58 Aspirin is administered to the client experiencing an MI because of its: A Antipyrectic action B Antithrombotic action C Antiplatelet action D Analgesic action Question 58 Explanation: Aspirin does have antipyretic, antiplatelet, and analgesic actions, but the primary reason ASA is administered to the client experiencing an MI is its antithrombotic action. Question 59 Following myocardial infarction, a hospitalized patient is encouraged to practice frequent leg exercises and ambulate in the hallway as directed by his physician. Which of the following choices reflects the purpose of exercise for this patient? A Increases fitness and prevents future heart attacks. B Prevents bedsores. C Prevents DVT (deep vein thrombosis). D Prevent constipations. Question 59 Explanation: Exercise is important for all hospitalized patients to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Muscular contraction promotes venous return and prevents hemostasis in the lower extremities. This exercise is not sufficiently vigorous to increase physical fitness, nor is it intended to prevent bedsores or constipation. Question 60 Toxicity from which of the following medications may cause a client to see a green-yellow halo around lights? A Digoxin B Furosemide (Lasix) C Metoprolol (Lopressor) D Enalapril (Vasotec) Question 60 Explanation: One of the most common signs of digoxin toxicity is the visual disturbance known as the “green-yellow halo sign.” The other medications aren’t associated with such an effect. Question 61 Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system produces which of the following responses? A Bradycardia B Tachycardia C Hypotension D Decreased myocardial contractility Question 61 Explanation: Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes tachycardia and increased contractility. The other symptoms listed are related to the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for slowing the heart rate. Question 62 An early finding in the EKG of a client with an infarcted mycardium would be: A Disappearance of Q waves B Elevated ST segments C Absence of P wave D Flattened T waves Question 62 Explanation: This is a typical early finding after a myocardial infarct because of the altered contractility of the heart. The other choices are not typical of MI. Question 63 Which of the following symptoms is most commonly associated with left-sided heart failure? A Crackles B Arrhythmias C Hepatic engorgement D Hypotension Question 63 Explanation: Crackles in the lungs are a classic sign of left-sided heart failure. These sounds are caused by fluid backing up into the pulmonary system. Option B: Arrhythmias can be associated with both right- and left-sided heart failure. Option D: Left-sided heart failure causes hypertension secondary to an increased workload on the system. Question 64 A male client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is recovering from a myocardial infarction. Because the client is extremely weak and can’t produce an effective cough, the nurse should monitor closely for: A Pleural effusion. B Pulmonary edema. C Atelectasis. D Oxygen toxicity. Question 64 Explanation: In a client with COPD, an ineffective cough impedes secretion removal. This, in turn, causes mucus plugging, which leads to localized airway obstruction — a known cause of atelectasis. An ineffective cough doesn’t cause pleural effusion (fluid accumulation in the pleural space). Pulmonary edema usually results from left-sided heart failure, not an ineffective cough. Although many noncardiac conditions may cause pulmonary edema, an ineffective cough isn’t one of them. Oxygen toxicity results from prolonged administration of high oxygen concentrations, not an ineffective cough. Question 65 A client comes into the E.R. with acute shortness of breath and a cough that produces pink, frothy sputum. Admission assessment reveals crackles and wheezes, a BP of 85/46, a HR of 122 BPM, and a respiratory rate of 38 breaths/minute. The client’s medical history included DM, HTN, and heart failure. Which of the following disorders should the nurse suspect? A Pulmonary edema B Pneumothorax C Cardiac tamponade D Pulmonary embolus Question 65 Explanation: SOB, tachypnea, low BP, tachycardia, crackles, and a cough producing pink, frothy sputum are late signs of pulmonary edema. Question 66 Which of the following reflects the principle on which a client’s diet will most likely be based during the acute phase of MI? A Liquids as ordered B Small, easily digested meals C Three regular meals per day D NPO Question 66 Explanation: Recommended dietary principles in the acute phase of MI include avoiding large meals because small, easily digested foods are better digested foods are better tolerated. Fluids are given according to the client’s needs, and sodium restrictions may be prescribed, especially for clients with manifestations of heart failure. Cholesterol restrictions may be ordered as well. Options A and D: Clients are not prescribed a diet of liquids only or NPO unless their condition is very unstable. Question 67 A nurse is preparing to ambulate a client on the 3rd day after cardiac surgery. The nurse would plan to do which of the following to enable the client to best tolerate the ambulation? A Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe B Premedicate the client with an analgesic C Provide the client with a walker D Remove telemetry equipment because it weighs down the hospital gown. Question 67 Explanation: The nurse should encourage regular use of pain medication for the first 48 to 72 hours after cardiac surgery because analgesia will promote rest, decrease myocardial oxygen consumption resulting from pain, and allow better participation in activities such as coughing, deep breathing, and ambulation. Options A and C will not help in tolerating ambulation. Option D: Removal of telemetry equipment is contraindicated unless prescribed. Question 68 The nurse should visit which of the following clients first? A The client with diabetes with a blood glucose of 95mg/dL B The client with hypertension being maintained on Lisinopril C The client with hypertension being maintained on Lisinopril D The client with Raynaud’s disease Question 68 Explanation: The client with chest pain should be seen first because this could indicate a myocardial infarction. The client in answer A has a blood glucose within normal limits. The client in answer B is maintained on blood pressure medication. The client in answer D is in no distress. Question 69 A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? A Slow, deep respirations. B Stridor. C Bradycardia. D Air hunger. Question 69 Explanation: Patients with pulmonary edema experience air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Respiration is fast and shallow and heart rate increases. Stridor is noisy breathing caused by laryngeal swelling or spasm and is not associated with pulmonary edema. Question 70 Which of the following arteries primarily feeds the anterior wall of the heart? A Circumflex artery B Internal mammary artery C Left anterior descending artery D Right coronary artery Question 70 Explanation: The left anterior descending artery is the primary source of blood for the anterior wall of the heart. Options A, B, and D: The circumflex artery supplies the lateral wall, the internal mammary artery supplies the mammary, and the right coronary artery supplies the inferior wall of the heart. Question 71 Mr. Duffy is admitted to the CCU with a diagnosis of R/O MI. He presented in the ER with a typical description of pain associated with an MI, and is now cold and clammy, pale and dyspneic. He has an IV of D5W running, and is complaining of chest pain. Oxygen therapy has not been started, and he is not on the monitor. He is frightened. During the first three days that Mr. Duffy is in the CCU, a number of diagnostic blood tests are obtained. Which of the following patterns of cardiac enzyme elevation are most common following an MI? A SGOT, CK, and LDH are all elevated immediately. B SGOT rises 4-6 hours after infarction with CK and LDH rising slowly 24 hours later. C CK peaks first (12-24 hours), followed by the SGOT (peaks in 24-36 hours) and then the LDH (peaks 3-4 days). D CK peaks first and remains elevated for 1 to 2 weeks. Question 71 Explanation: Although the timing of initial elevation, peak elevation, and duration of elevation vary with sources, current literature favors option letter c. Question 72 Furosemide is administered intravenously to a client with HF. How soon after administration should the nurse begin to see evidence of the drugs desired effect? A 5 to 10 minutes B 30 to 60 minutes C 2 to 4 hours D 6 to 8 hours Question 72 Explanation: After IV injection of furosemide, diuresis normally begins in about 5 minutes and reaches its peak within about 30 minutes. Medication effects last 2 to 4 hours. Question 73 What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a client with an MI? A To sedate the client B To decrease the client’s pain C To decrease the client’s anxiety D To decrease oxygen demand on the client’s heart Question 73 Explanation: Morphine is administered because it decreases myocardial oxygen demand. Options A, B, and C: Morphine will also decrease pain and anxiety while causing sedation, but it isn’t primarily given for those reasons. Question 74 Dr. Marquez orders a continuous intravenous nitroglycerin infusion for the client suffering from myocardial infarction. Which of the following is the most essential nursing action? A Monitoring urine output frequently B Monitoring blood pressure every 4 hours C Obtaining serum potassium levels daily D Obtaining infusion pump for the medication Question 74 Explanation: Administration of Intravenous Nitroglycerin infusion requires pump for accurate control of medication. Question 75 Which of the following recurring conditions most commonly occurs in clients with cardiomyopathy? A Heart failure B Diabetes C MI D Pericardial effusion Question 75 Explanation: Because the structure and function of the heart muscle is affected, heart failure most commonly occurs in clients with cardiomyopathy. Option C: MI results from prolonged myocardial ischemia due to reduced blood flow through one of the coronary arteries. Option D: Pericardial effusion is most predominant in clients with pericarditis. Question 76 The greatest danger of an uncorrected atrial fibrillation for a male patient will be which of the following: A Pulmonary embolism B Cardiac arrest C Thrombus formation D Myocardial infarction Question 77 A client with a history of an anterior wall myocardial infarction is being transferred from the coronary care unit (CCU) to the cardiac stepdown unit (CSU). While giving report to the CSU nurse, the CCU nurse says, “His pulmonary artery wedge pressures have been in the high normal range.” The CSU nurse should be especially observant for: A hypertension B high urine output C dry mucous membranes D pulmonary crackles Question 77 Explanation: High pulmonary artery wedge pressures are diagnostic for left-sided heart failure. With leftsided heart failure, pulmonary edema can develop causing pulmonary crackles. In leftsided heart failure, hypotension may result and urine output will decline. Dry mucous membranes aren’t directly associated with elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressures. Question 78 Which of the following would be a priority nursing diagnosis for the client with heart failure and pulmonary edema? A Risk for infection related to stasis of alveolar secretions B Impaired skin integrity related to pressure C Activity intolerance related to pump failure D Constipation related to immobility Question 78 Explanation: Activity intolerance is a primary problem for clients with heart failure and pulmonary edema. The decreased cardiac output associated with heart failure leads to reduced oxygen and fatigue. Clients frequently complain of dyspnea and fatigue. Options A, B, and D: The client could be at risk for infection related to stasis of secretions or impaired skin integrity related to pressure. However, these are not the priority nursing diagnoses for the client with HF and pulmonary edema, nor is constipation related to immobility. Question 79 When developing a teaching plan for a client with endocarditis, which of the following points is most essential for the nurse to include? A “Report fever, anorexia, and night sweats to the physician.” B “Take prophylactic antibiotics after dental work and invasive procedures.” C “Include potassium rich foods in your diet.” D “Monitor your pulse regularly.” Question 79 Explanation: An essential teaching point is to report signs of relapse, such as fever, anorexia, and night sweats, to the physician. Option B: To prevent further endocarditis episodes, prophylactic antibiotics are taken before and sometimes after dental work, childbirth, or GU, GI, or gynecologic procedures. Options C and D: A potassium-rich diet and daily pulse monitoring aren’t necessary for a client with endocarditis. Question 80 The nurse finds the apical pulse below the 5th intercostal space. The nurse suspects: A Left atrial enlargement B Left ventricular enlargement C Right atrial enlargement D Right ventricular enlargement Question 80 Explanation: A normal apical impulse is found under over the apex of the heart and is typically located and auscultated in the left fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line. An apical impulse located or auscultated below the fifth intercostal space or lateral to the midclavicular line may indicate left ventricular enlargement. Question 81 Which patient’s nursing care would be most appropriate for the charge nurse to assign to the LPN, under the supervision of the RN team leader? A A 51-year-old patient with bilateral adrenalectomy just returned from the post-anesthesia care unit B An 83-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease C A 38-year-old patient with myocardial infarction who is preparing for discharge D A 72-year-old patient admitted from long-term care with mental status changes Question 81 Explanation: The 83-year-old patient has no complicating factors at the moment. Providing care for stable and uncomplicated patients is within the LPN’s educational preparation and scope of practice, with the care always being provided under the supervision and direction of the RN. The RN should assess the newly post-operative patient and the new admission. The patient who is preparing for discharge after MI may need some complex teaching. Focus: Delegation/supervision, assignment Question 82 What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a client with myocardial infarction? A To sedate the client B To decrease the client's pain C To decrease the client's anxiety D To decrease oxygen demand on the client's heart Question 82 Explanation: Morphine is administered because it decreases myocardial oxygen demand. Morphine will also decrease pain and anxiety while causing sedation, but isn't primarily given for those reasons. Question 83 Which of the following conditions is most commonly responsible for myocardial infarction? A Aneurysm B Heart failure C Coronary artery thrombosis D Renal failure Question 83 Explanation: Coronary artery thrombosis causes an inclusion of the artery, leading to myocardial death. Option A: An aneurysm is an outpouching of a vessel and doesn’t cause an MI. Option B: Heart failure is usually a result from an MI. Option D: Renal failure can be associated with MI but isn’t a direct cause. Question 84 Which of the following cardiac conditions does a fourth heart sound (S4) indicate? A Dilated aorta B Normally functioning heart C Decreased myocardial contractility D Failure of the ventricle to eject all of the blood during systole Question 84 Explanation: An S4 occurs as a result of increased resistance to ventricular filling after atrial contraction. The increased resistance is related to decreased compliance of the ventricle. Option A: A dilated aorta doesn’t cause an extra heart sound, though it does cause a murmur. Option B: An S4 isn’t heard in a normally functioning heart. Option C: Decreased myocardial contractility is heard as a third heart sound. Question 85 A 55-year-old client is admitted with chest pain that radiates to the neck, jaw and shoulders that occurs at rest, with high body temperature, weak with generalized sweating and with decreased blood pressure. A myocardial infarction is diagnosed. The nurse knows that the most accurate explanation for one of these presenting adaptations is: A Catecholamines released at the site of the infarction causes intermittent localized pain. B Parasympathetic reflexes from the infarcted myocardium causes diaphoresis. C Constriction of central and peripheral blood vessels causes a decrease in blood pressure. D Inflammation in the myocardium causes a rise in the systemic body temperature. Question 85 Explanation: Temperature may increase within the first 24 hours and persist as long as a week. Question 86 The physician orders continuous intravenous nitroglycerin infusion for the client with MI. Essential nursing actions include which of the following? A Obtaining an infusion pump for the medication B Monitoring BP q4h C Monitoring urine output hourly D Obtaining serum potassium levels daily Question 86 Explanation: IV nitro infusion requires an infusion pump for precise control of the medication. Option B: BP monitoring would be done with a continuous system, and more frequently than every 4 hours. Option C: Hourly urine outputs are not always required. Option D: Obtaining serum potassium levels is not associated with nitroglycerin infusion. Question 87 Medical treatment of coronary artery disease includes which of the following procedures? A Cardiac catherization B Coronary artery bypass surgery C Oral medication therapy D Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty Question 87 Explanation: Oral medication administration is a noninvasive, medical treatment for coronary artery disease. Option A: Cardiac catheterization isn’t a treatment, but a diagnostic tool. Options B and D: Coronary artery bypass surgery and percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty are invasive, surgical treatments. Question 88 Which of the following conditions is the predominant cause of angina? A Increased preload B Decreased afterload C Coronary artery spasm D Inadequate oxygen supply to the myocardium Question 88 Explanation: Inadequate oxygen supply to the myocardium is responsible for the pain accompanying angina. Option A: Increased preload would be responsible for right-sided heart failure. Option B: Decreased afterload causes increased cardiac output. Option C: Coronary artery spasm is responsible for variant angina. Question 89 Which of the following complications is indicated by a third heart sound (S3)? A Ventricular dilation B Systemic hypertension C Aortic valve malfunction D Increased atrial contractions Question 89 Explanation: Rapid filling of the ventricle causes vasodilation that is auscultated as S3. Option B and D: Increased atrial contraction or systemic hypertension can result in a fourth heart sound. Option C: Aortic valve malfunction is heard as a murmur. Question 90 Which of the following classes of medications maximizes cardiac performance in clients with heart failure by increasing ventricular contractibility? A Beta-adrenergic blockers B Calcium channel blockers C Diuretics D Inotropic agents Question 90 Explanation: Inotropic agents are administered to increase the force of the heart’s contractions, thereby increasing ventricular contractility and ultimately increasing cardiac output. Question 91 Helen, a nurse from the maternity unit is floated to the critical care unit because of staff shortage on the evening shift. Which client would be appropriate to assign to this nurse? A client with: A Dopamine drip IV with vital signs monitored every 5 minutes B a myocardial infarction that is free from pain and dysrhythmias C a tracheotomy of 24 hours in some respiratory distress D a pacemaker inserted this morning with intermittent capture Question 91 Explanation: This client is the most stable with minimal risk of complications or instability. The nurse can utilize basic nursing skills to care for this client. Question 92 The nurse is giving discharge teaching to a client 7 days post myocardial infarction. He asks the nurse why he must wait 6 weeks before having sexual intercourse. What is the best response by the nurse to this question? A "You need to regain your strength before attempting such exertion." B "When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe.” C "Have a glass of wine to relax you, then you can try to have sex." D "If you can maintain an active walking program, you will have less risk." Question 92 Explanation: "When you can climb 2 flights of stairs without problems, it is generally safe." There is a risk of cardiac rupture at the point of the myocardial infarction for about 6 weeks. Scar tissue should form about that time. Waiting until the client can tolerate climbing stairs is the usual advice given by health care providers. Question 93 Which of the following results is the primary treatment goal for angina? A Reversal of ischemia B Reversal of infarction C Reduction of stress and anxiety D Reduction of associated risk factors Question 93 Explanation: Reversal of the ischemia is the primary goal, achieved by reducing oxygen consumption and increasing oxygen supply. Option B: An infarction is permanent and can’t be reversed. Question 94 A nurse caring for several patients on the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure? A A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage. B A post-operative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule. C A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. D A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue. Question 94 Explanation: An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator delivers an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. This is necessary in a patient with significant ventricular symptoms, such as tachycardia resulting in syncope. A patient with myocardial infarction that resolved with no permanent cardiac damage would not be a candidate. A patient recovering well from coronary bypass would not need the device. Atrial tachycardia is less serious and is treated conservatively with medication and cardioversion as a last resort. Question 95 Patrick who is hospitalized following a myocardial infarction asks the nurse why he is taking morphine. The nurse explains that morphine: A Decrease anxiety and restlessness B Prevents shock and relieves pain C Dilates coronary blood vessels D Helps prevent fibrillation of the heart Question 95 Explanation: Morphine is a central nervous system depressant used to relieve the pain associated with myocardial infarction, it also decreases apprehension and prevents cardiogenic shock. Question 96 Captopril may be administered to a client with HF because it acts as a: A Vasopressor B Volume expander C Vasodilator D Potassium-sparing diuretic Question 96 Explanation: ACE inhibitors have become the vasodilators of choice in the client with mild to severe HF. Vasodilator drugs are the only class of drugs clearly shown to improve survival in overt heart failure. Question 97 A female client is brought by ambulance to the hospital emergency room after taking an overdose of barbiturates is comatose. Nurse Trish would be especially alert for which of the following? A Epilepsy B Myocardial Infarction C Renal failure D Respiratory failure Question 97 Explanation: Barbiturates are CNS depressants; the nurse would be especially alert for the possibility of respiratory failure. Respiratory failure is the most likely cause of death from barbiturate over dose. Question 98 Which statement best describes the difference between the pain of angina and the pain of myocardial infarction? A Pain associated with angina is relieved by rest. B Pain associated with myocardial infarction is always more severe. C Pain associated with angina is confined to the chest area. D Pain associated with myocardial infarction is referred to the left arm. Question 98 Explanation: Pain associated with angina is relieved by rest. Answer B is incorrect because it is not a true statement. Answer Pain associated with angina is confined to the chest area is incorrect because pain associated with angina can be referred to the jaw, the left arm, and the back. Pain associated with myocardial infarction is referred to the left arm is incorrect because pain from a myocardial infarction can be referred to areas other than the left arm. Question 99 In which of the following types of cardiomyopathy does cardiac output remain normal? A Dilated B Hypertrophic C Obliterative D Restrictive Question 99 Explanation: Cardiac output isn’t affected by hypertrophic cardiomyopathy because the size of the ventricle remains relatively unchanged. All of the rest decrease cardiac output. Question 100 Which of the following actions is the first priority of care for a client exhibiting signs and symptoms of coronary artery disease? A Decrease anxiety B Enhance myocardial oxygenation C Administer sublingual nitroglycerin D Educate the client about his symptoms Question 100 Explanation: Enhancing myocardial oxygenation is always the first priority when a client exhibits signs or symptoms of cardiac compromise. Without adequate oxygenation, the myocardium suffers damage. Options A and D: Although educating the client and decreasing anxiety are important in care delivery, neither are priorities when a client is compromised. Option C: Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to treat acute angina, but the administration isn’t the first priority. Question 101 What is the first intervention for a client experiencing MI? A Administer morphine B Administer oxygen C Administer sublingual nitroglycerin D Obtain an ECG Question 101 Explanation: Administering supplemental oxygen to the client is the first priority of care. The myocardium is deprived of oxygen during an infarction, so additional oxygen is administered to assist in oxygenation and prevent further damage. Options A and C: Morphine and nitro are also used to treat MI, but they’re more commonly administered after the oxygen. Option D: An ECG is the most common diagnostic tool used to evaluate MI. Question 102 An 18-year-old client who recently had an URI is admitted with suspected rheumatic fever. Which assessment findings confirm this diagnosis? A Erythema marginatum, subcutaneous nodules, and fever B Tachycardia, finger clubbing, and a load S3 C Dyspnea, cough, and palpitations D Dyspnea, fatigue, and synocope Question 102 Explanation: Diagnosis of rheumatic fever requires that the client have either two major Jones criteria or one minor criterion plus evidence of a previous streptococcal infection. Major criteria include carditis, polyarthritis, Sydenham’s chorea, subcutaneous nodules, and erythema maginatum (transient, nonprurtic macules on the trunk or inner aspects of the upper arms or thighs). Minor criteria include fever, arthralgia, elevated levels of acute phase reactants, and a prolonged PR-interval on ECG. Question 103 Dyspnea, cough, expectoration, weakness, and edema are classic signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions? A Pericarditis B Hypertension C MI D Heart failure Question 103 Explanation: These are the classic signs of failure. Option A: Pericarditis is exhibited by a feeling of fullness in the chest and auscultation of a pericardial friction rub. Option B: Hypertension is usually exhibited by headaches, visual disturbances, and a flushed face. Option D: MI causes heart failure but isn’t related to these symptoms. Question 104 Which of the following heart muscle diseases is unrelated to other cardiovascular disease? A Cardiomyopathy B Coronary artery disease C Myocardial infarction D Pericardial effusion Question 104 Explanation: Cardiomyopathy isn’t usually related to an underlying heart disease such as atherosclerosis. The etiology in most cases is unknown. Options B and C: CAD and MI are directly related to atherosclerosis. Option D:Pericardial effusion is the escape of fluid into the pericardial sac, a condition associated with Pericarditis and advanced heart failure. Question 105 Twenty four hours after admission for an Acute MI, Jose’s temperature is noted at 39.3 C. The nurse monitors him for other adaptations related to the pyrexia, including: A Shortness of breath B Chest pain C Elevated blood pressure D Increased pulse rate Question 105 Explanation: Fever causes an increase in the body’s metabolism, which results in an increase in oxygen consumption and demand. This need for oxygen increases the heart rate, which is reflected in the increased pulse rate. Increased BP, chest pain and shortness of breath are not typically noted in fever. Which artery is used to feel for a pulse in an infant?Taking a Child's Pulse
The best spot to feel the pulse in a child is the wrist, called the radial pulse. Gently feel on the inside of the wrist on the thumb side. If you can't easily find the pulse on the wrist, you can try the neck, which has the carotid pulse.
Where would you take a pulse for a child under 1?The best spot to feel the pulse in an infant is the upper am, called the brachial pulse. Lay your baby down on the back with one arm bent so the hand is up by the ear.
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